University Calculus: Early Transcendentals (3rd Edition)

Published by Pearson
ISBN 10: 0321999584
ISBN 13: 978-0-32199-958-0

Chapter 4 - Section 4.2 - The Mean Value Theorem - Exercises - Page 223: 27

Answer

See proof below.

Work Step by Step

$r(\theta) $ is continuous and differentiable on $(0,\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2})$. $r(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2})\approx-1.986\lt 0, \qquad r(1)\approx 5.058\gt 0$ so the Intermediate Value Theorem guarantees that there is a zero between $\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}$ and $1$. Check whether $r$ is increasing over $(0,\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2})$. (If it is, the mentioned zero would be the only zero.) $r'(\displaystyle \theta)=\sec\theta\tan\theta-(-3\theta^{-4})=\sec\theta\tan\theta+\frac{3}{\theta^{4}}$ $\sec\theta\tan\theta $ is positive on$ (0,\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}), \quad$ as is $\displaystyle \frac{3}{\theta^{4}}$. It follows that $r'$ is always positive on$ (0,\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}),$ which means that $r $ is an increasing function on$ (0,\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2}),$ So, $r$ has only one zero in $(0,\displaystyle \frac{\pi}{2})$
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