Answer
$b_m$ converges to $0$.
Work Step by Step
We have
$$
\lim _{m \rightarrow \infty} b_m=\lim _{m \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1+(-1)^m}{m}\\
=\lim _{m \rightarrow \infty} \frac{(1/m)+((-1)^m/m)}{1}=0
$$
So, $b_m$ converges to $0$.
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 11 - Infinite Series - Chapter Review Exercises - Page 591: 14
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