Answer
False.
Work Step by Step
The region is given by
\[
\int_{-1}^{1} \int_{x^{2}}^{1} f(x, y) d y d x=\iint_{R} f(x, y) d A
\]
Let $x=f(x)$; we get
\[
0=\int_{-1}^{1} \int_{x^{2}}^{1} f(x, y) d y d x
\]
But
\[
\frac{1}{4}=\int_{0}^{1} \int_{x^{2}}^{1} f(x, y) d y d x
\]
This is false in general cases. But if the function $f(x, y)$ is even in $x,$ it becomes true.