## Algebra 1

Published by Prentice Hall

# Chapter 8 - Polynomials and Factoring - 8-4 Multiplying Special Cases - Practice and Problem-Solving Exercises - Page 496: 55

#### Answer

No. This is because the fraction is in an improper form.

#### Work Step by Step

$3\frac{1}{2}=\frac{7}{2}$ Thus, $(3\frac{1}{2})^{2} = (\frac{7}{2})^{2} = \frac{49}{4}$ Which is not equal to $\frac{37}{4}$ or $9\frac{1}{4}$. Therefore, It is not true because the fraction is in an improper form.

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