# Chapter 1 - Section 1.8 - Inverse Functions - Exercise Set - Page 272: 94

The statement is true.

#### Work Step by Step

In order to find ${{f}^{-1}}$ from f, interchange the values $\left( x,\ y \right)$ by $\left( y,\ x \right)$ Now, the domain is the set of all the values of x and the range is the set of all the values of y. Thus, the domain of a function and the domain of its inverse is the same.

After you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.