Answer
The statement is true.
Work Step by Step
In order to find ${{f}^{-1}}$ from f, interchange the values $\left( x,\ y \right)$ by $\left( y,\ x \right)$
Now, the domain is the set of all the values of x and the range is the set of all the values of y.
Thus, the domain of a function and the domain of its inverse is the same.
