Answer
Yes
Work Step by Step
We apply the identity of the inverse function:
$f\left( {{f}^{-1}}\left( x \right) \right)=x$
So the value of $\left( f\circ {{f}^{-1}} \right)\left( 17 \right)=17$
Thus, there is no need to find the value of ${{f}^{-1}}$ in order to determine the value of $\left( f\circ {{f}^{-1}} \right)\left( 17 \right)$.
