Answer
$0.936$
Work Step by Step
We know that $P(\text{an event happens})=1-P(\text{an event doesn't happen}).$
Hence, here (with $6.4\%=0.06$) we have
$P(\text{never spent any money in gambling})=1-P(\text{spent some money in gambling})\\
P(\text{never spent any money in gambling})=1-0.064\\
P(\text{never spent any money in gambling})=0.936$