Answer
$0$
Work Step by Step
Start with the innermost argument, $\ln e$. Since $\ln e^a=a$ and $e=e^1$, $\ln e=\ln e^1=1$. Therefore, $\ln(\ln e)=\ln(1)$ since $1=e^{0}$, $$\ln(\ln e)=\ln(e^0)=0$$
Functions Modeling Change: A Preparation for Calculus, 5th Edition
by Connally, Eric; Hughes-Hallett, Deborah; Gleason, Andrew M.; Cheifetz, Phil C.
Published by
Wiley
ISBN 10:
1118583191
ISBN 13:
978-1-11858-319-7
Chapter 5 - Logarithmic Functions - Exercises to Skills for Chapter 5 - Page 232: 2
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