Answer
converges to 0
Work Step by Step
To determine whether a sequence converges, take the limit as $n$ approaches infinity. So,
=$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac {(n-2)!}{n!}$
Change the $n!$ to $(n-2)!(n-1)n$
=$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac {(n-2)!}{(n-2)!(n-1)n}=\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} \frac {1}{n(n-1)}$
=0; therefore, sequence converges to 0
