Answer
$-\frac{2}{\pi}$
Work Step by Step
Given $f(x)=cos(x)$, we have $f(0)=cos(0)=1$ and $f(\frac{\pi}{2})=cos(\frac{\pi}{2})=0$, thus the rate of change$=\frac{f(\frac{\pi}{2})-f(0)}{\frac{\pi}{2}-0}=\frac{0-1}{\frac{\pi}{2}}=-\frac{2}{\pi}$
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