Answer
$1$
Work Step by Step
We know that $\cos$ is an even function, which means $f(-\theta)=f(\theta).$
Hence,
$\frac{\cos{(-40^{o})}}{\cos{(40^{o})}}=\frac{\cos{(40^{o})}}{\cos{(40^{o})}}=1$
Precalculus (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0
Chapter 6 - Trigonometric Functions - Chapter Review - Review Exercises - Page 434: 13
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