Answer
Yes, see explanations.
Work Step by Step
The answer is Yes, because if we know $\lim_{x\to c}f(x)$ exists, we know $\lim_{x\to c}f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^+}f(x)=\lim_{x\to c^-}f(x)$ and we can use $\lim_{x\to c^+}f(x)$ to obtain the others.
Thomas' Calculus 13th Edition
by Thomas Jr., George B.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32187-896-5
ISBN 13:
978-0-32187-896-0
Chapter 2: Limits and Continuity - Section 2.4 - One-Sided Limits - Exercises 2.4 - Page 75: 44
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