Answer
0
Work Step by Step
Let $\cos^{-1} 1= y$.
Then, $\cos y= 1= \cos 0$.
This implies $y= 0$.
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 7 - Exponential Functions - 7.8 Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Exercises - Page 374: 1
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