Answer
$0$
Work Step by Step
Since $\tan\left(\pi\right)=0$, we have
$$\tan^{-1}\left(\tan\left(\pi\right)\right)=\tan^{-1}\left(0\right)=0.$$
Calculus (3rd Edition)
by Rogawski, Jon; Adams, Colin
Published by
W. H. Freeman
ISBN 10:
1464125260
ISBN 13:
978-1-46412-526-3
Chapter 7 - Exponential Functions - 7.8 Inverse Trigonometric Functions - Exercises - Page 374: 12
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