Answer
$\text{False}$
Work Step by Step
If this were true, then the derivative of the RHS should be the integrand function.
The RHS is not an antiderivative of $\ln x:$
$\displaystyle \frac{d}{dx}(\frac{1}{x}+C)=\frac{d}{dx}(x^{-1}+C)=(-1)\cdot x^{-1-1}= -x^{-2},$
which is not $\ln x$, showing that the statement is false.