Answer
The given statement is false.
Work Step by Step
Consider the expression:
$\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}$
If $g\left( x \right)=0$, then $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}$ becomes $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{0}$.
It is known that anything divided by zero is undefined.
So, the form $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}$ does not exist if $g\left( x \right)=0$.
Therefore, the given statement is false.
