## Elementary and Intermediate Algebra: Concepts & Applications (6th Edition)

Consider the expression: $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}$ If $g\left( x \right)=0$, then $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}$ becomes $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{0}$. It is known that anything divided by zero is undefined. So, the form $\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}$ does not exist if $g\left( x \right)=0$. Therefore, the given statement is false.