Answer
$(f\circ g)(x)=cos(\frac{1}{2}x)$ and $(g\circ f)(x)=\frac{1}{2}cos(x)$.
See graph.
Work Step by Step
1. Given $f(x)=cos(x)$ and $g(x)=\frac{1}{2}x$, we have $(f\circ g)(x)=cos(\frac{1}{2}x)$ and $(g\circ f)(x)=\frac{1}{2}cos(x)$.
2. See graph.
