Answer
does not make sense
Work Step by Step
It is possible that $f\circ g = g\circ f=x$ when $f$ and $g$ are inverse functions of each other. However, it is also common that $f\circ g \ne g\circ f$. Thus, the statement does not make sense.
Precalculus (6th Edition) Blitzer
by Blitzer, Robert F.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-13446-914-3
ISBN 13:
978-0-13446-914-0
Chapter 1 - Section 1.7 - Combinations of Functions; Composite Functions - Exercise Set - Page 260: 112
Update this answer!
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.
Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.
