Precalculus (6th Edition) Blitzer

Published by Pearson
ISBN 10: 0-13446-914-3
ISBN 13: 978-0-13446-914-0

Chapter 1 - Section 1.7 - Combinations of Functions; Composite Functions - Exercise Set - Page 260: 112

Answer

does not make sense

Work Step by Step

It is possible that $f\circ g = g\circ f=x$ when $f$ and $g$ are inverse functions of each other. However, it is also common that $f\circ g \ne g\circ f$. Thus, the statement does not make sense.
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