Answer
No, because $(k^2)^{-5}=k^{-10}=\frac{1}{k^{10}}$.
Work Step by Step
No.
$x^2(-5) \ne -k^{10}$ because by the property of exponents,
$(k^2)^{-5} = (k^2) ^(-5) = k^{-10} = \frac{1}{k^{10}}$
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