Answer
$n=1$
Work Step by Step
In part (a), we found that $A = h^2$, where $h$ is the height of the bar above the vertex.
We can find the magnitude of the emf:
$\mathscr{E} = \frac{d\Phi}{dt}$
$\mathscr{E} = \frac{dA}{dt}~B$
$\mathscr{E} = \frac{dA}{dh}~\frac{dh}{dt}~B$
$\mathscr{E} = (2h)~(v)~(B)$
$\mathscr{E} = (2vt)~(v)~(B)$
$\mathscr{E} = 2Bv^2~t$
If $~~\mathscr{E} = at^n,~~$ then $~~n=1$