Answer
False
Work Step by Step
The statement is false. As shown on the table on page 703, the range of the inverse tangent function is $\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$, while the range of the inverse cotangent function is $(0, \pi)$.
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.
Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.