#### Answer

Diverges

#### Work Step by Step

Let us consider $a_n=(\dfrac{1}{n}-\dfrac{1}{n^2})$
Apply the direct comparison test.
We can see that $\Sigma_{n=1}^\infty (\dfrac{1}{n}-\dfrac{1}{n^2}) \geq \Sigma_{n=1}^\infty (\dfrac{1}{n}-\dfrac{1}{2n})=\Sigma_{n=1}^\infty (\dfrac{1}{2n})$
Here, the series $\Sigma_{n=1}^\infty (\dfrac{1}{2n})$ shows a harmonic series which is divergent
Thus, the series diverges by the direct comparison test.