Calculus: Early Transcendentals 8th Edition

Published by Cengage Learning
ISBN 10: 1285741552
ISBN 13: 978-1-28574-155-0

Chapter 4 - Section 4.2 - The Mean Value Theorem - 4.2 Exercises - Page 292: 33

Answer

$f'(x) = g'(x)~~~$ for all $x$ in their domains. We can not conclude from Corollary 7 that $f- g$ is constant.

Work Step by Step

The domain of $f$ is $(-\infty,0) \cup (0,\infty)$ The domain of $g$ is $(-\infty,0) \cup (0,\infty)$ $f'(x) = -\frac{1}{x^2}$ and $g'(x) = -\frac{1}{x^2}$ Thus $~~~f'(x) = g'(x)~~~$ for all $x$ in their domains. According to Corollary 7, in the interval $(-\infty,0)$: $f- g = c_1~~$ for some constant $c_1$ Also, according to Corollary 7, in the interval $(0,\infty)$: $f- g = c_2~~$ for some constant $c_2$ However, it is possible that $c_1 \neq c_2$ Therefore, we can not conclude from Corollary 7 that $f- g$ is constant.
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