## Calculus 8th Edition

If the following is true: $\lim\limits_{x \to 5}f(x)=0$ $\lim\limits_{x \to 5}g(x)=0$ Then it is not true that $\lim\limits_{x \to 5}[\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}]$ doesn't exist. For instance: $\lim\limits_{x \to 5}\frac{x-5}{x-5} = \frac{0}{0}$ However, you can simplify the expression: $\lim\limits_{x \to 5}1$ the limit of the expression is 1 Thus, it is FALSE that the limit does not exist.