#### Answer

TRUE

#### Work Step by Step

If the following is true
$\lim\limits_{x \to 5}f(x) = 2$
$\lim\limits_{x \to 5}g(x) = 0$
Then it is true that $\lim\limits_{x \to 5}[\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}]$ does not exist
It would be $\frac{2}{0}$ which is undefined.