Chapter 5 - Logarithmic, Exponential, and Other Transcendental Functions - 5.3 Exercises - Page 345: 90

True

The y-intercept of a function $k(x)$ is $ Y=k(0)$, the x-intercept is $X$ such that $k(X)=0$ So, $f(0)=X$ $⇒ f^{-1}(f(0)) = f^{-1}(X) $ $ ⇒ f^{-1}(X) =0$ which is, by definition, the x-intercept of the function $f^{-1}(x)$