Answer
True.
Work Step by Step
True, by the Mean Value Theorem, we know that there is a point $x^{*}$ in $[a, b]$ such that
\[
\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x=0=(-a+b) f\left(x^{*}\right)
\]
Since $b \neq a,$ we know that $f\left(x^{*}\right)=0$, so the equation $f(x)=0$ has at least one solution in the interval $[a, b]$.