# Chapter 2, Functions - Chapter 2 Test - Page 272: 13

Yes, $f$ and $g$ are inverse functions by the Inverse Function Property.

#### Work Step by Step

We know that if $f$ and $g$ are inverse functions of each other, then $f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x$. $\displaystyle f(g(x))=\frac{1}{(\frac{1}{x}+2)-2}=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x}}=x$ $\displaystyle g(f(x))=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x-2}}+2=x-2+2=x$ Therefore, $f$ and $g$ are inverse functions.

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