## College Algebra (6th Edition)

False; $ln(e)=1$
We are given that $ln(e)=0$. We know that $ln(x)$ is a natural logarithm with an understood base of $e$. Therefore, $ln(e)=log_{e}e$. Based on the definition of the logarithmic function, we know that $y=log_{b}x$ is equivalent to $b^{y}=x$ (for $x\gt0$ and $b\gt0$, $b\ne1$). Therefore, $log_{e}e=ln(e)=1$, because $e^{1}=e$. The given statement is false.