Answer
False; undefined
Work Step by Step
We are given that $ln(0)=e$.
We know that $ln(x)$ is a natural logarithm with an understood base of $e$. Therefore, $ln(0)=log_{0}e$.
Based on the definition of the logarithmic function, we know that $y=log_{b}x$ is equivalent to $b^{y}=x$ (for $x\gt0$ and $b\gt0$, $b\ne1$).
Therefore, $log_{0}(e)$ is undefined, because there is no number $a$ such that $0^{a}=e$. The given statement is false.