Answer
$\frac{\pi}{3}$.
Work Step by Step
Let $\cos^{-1}(\frac{1}{2})= y$. Then, cos y= $\frac{1}{2}$.
We know that $\cos(\frac{\pi}{3})= \frac{1}{2}$.
This implies that y= $\frac{\pi}{3}$.
Trigonometry 7th Edition
by McKeague, Charles P.; Turner, Mark D.
Published by
Cengage Learning
ISBN 10:
1111826854
ISBN 13:
978-1-11182-685-7
Chapter 4 - Section 4.7 - Inverse Trigonometric Functions - 4.7 Problem Set - Page 261: 18
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