Answer
It does not make sense.
Work Step by Step
$\frac{p\left( x \right)}{q\left( x \right)}$
Where $\text{degree of }p>\text{degree of }q$
$\frac{p\left( x \right)}{q\left( x \right)}$
Where, both $p\left( x \right)$ and $q\left( x \right)$ are polynomials and the degree of $p\left( x \right)$ is smaller then the degree
of $q\left( x \right)$; partial fractions can only be done if the degree of the numerator is strictly less then the degree of the denominator .
Thus, if the degree of $p\left( x \right)$ is grater than the degree of $q\left( x \right)$, then it does not make sense.
