Answer
No, the provided statement does not make any sense; the lines are not perpendicular.
Work Step by Step
Consider that the slope of one line is $-\frac{3}{5}$ and the slope of the second line is $-\frac{5}{3}$.
If the product of their slope is $-1$, then the given two lines will be perpendicular.
That is, ${{m}_{1}}\cdot {{m}_{2}}=-1$.
So, the product of their slopes is,
$\begin{align}
& \left( -\frac{3}{5} \right)\times \left( -\frac{5}{3} \right)\overset{?}{\mathop{=}}\,-1. \\
& 1\ne -1
\end{align}$
Hence, the given lines are not perpendicular. So, the statement does make any sense.
