Answer
Since $\tan(\alpha-\beta)=\dfrac{\tan(\alpha)-\tan(\beta)}{1+\tan(\alpha)\tan(\beta)}$, then
$\tan(\pi-\theta)\\
=\dfrac{\tan(\pi)-\tan(\theta)}{1+\tan(\pi)\tan(\theta)}\\
=\dfrac{0-\tan(\theta)}{1+0\tan(\theta)}\\
=\dfrac{-\tan(\theta)}{1}\\
=-\tan(\theta)$
Work Step by Step
Recall:
$\tan(\alpha-\beta)=\dfrac{\tan(\alpha)-\tan(\beta)}{1+\tan(\alpha)\tan(\beta)}$
Hence,
$\tan(\pi-\theta)\\
=\dfrac{\tan(\pi)-\tan(\theta)}{1+\tan(\pi)\tan(\theta)}\\
=\dfrac{0-\tan(\theta)}{1+0\tan(\theta)}\\
=\dfrac{-\tan(\theta)}{1}\\
=-\tan(\theta)$