Answer
False.
Work Step by Step
Using the fact that $\frac{a^m}{a^n}=a^{m-n}$, $$\frac{m^8}{2m^2}=\frac{1}{2} \cdot \frac{m^8}{m^2}=\frac{1}{2} m^6$$ Therefore, this statement is false.
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