## Calculus (3rd Edition)

$0$.
We have $$\lim\limits_{n \to \infty}{b_n}=\lim\limits_{n \to \infty} e^{1-n^2}=0.$$ Where we used the fact that $\lim_{x\to \infty } e^{-x}=\infty$ when $x\gt 0$. Using Theorem 1, we see that the sequence $b_n$ converges to $0$.