Answer
false; the equations $\frac{x}{x-4}=\frac{4}{x-4}$ and $x=4$ aren't equivalent.
Work Step by Step
The equations $\frac{x}{x-4}=\frac{4}{x-4}$ and $x=4$ are equivalent.
$\frac{4}{4-4}=\frac{4}{4-4}$
$\frac{4}{0}=\frac{4}{0}$
undefined $\ne$ undefined
Both solutions end up undefined, so the above statement is false.
