Answer
True.
Work Step by Step
True. For $f(x)=log_a(x)$, we have $f(1)=log_a(1)=0$ which gives $(1,0)$, while $x=0$ is not in the domain, thus no y-intercept.
Precalculus: Concepts Through Functions, A Unit Circle Approach to Trigonometry (3rd Edition)
by Sullivan III, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32193-104-1
ISBN 13:
978-0-32193-104-7
Chapter 4 - Exponential and Logarithmic Functions - Section 4.4 Logarithmic Functions - 4.4 Assess Your Understanding - Page 320: 8
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