Answer
$false$.
Work Step by Step
Based on the Rational Zero Theorem, the given polynomial will have possible rational zeros of $\frac{p}{q}$ with $p=\pm1$ (factors of $1$) and $q=\pm1,\pm3$ (factors of $3$). Thus, $\frac{1}{2}$ is not a possible rational zero and the answer is $false$.
