Answer
True.
Work Step by Step
The function $f(x)=\frac{x-1}{x-2}$ has a hole at $x=2$ because the function is undefined there, hence the statement is true.
Precalculus (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0
Chapter 4 - Polynomial and Rational Functions - 4.3 The Graph of a Rational Function - 4.3 Assess Your Understanding - Page 211: 6
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