Answer
false
Work Step by Step
If $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$, then the domain doesn't include 0 because the function is undefined when $x=0$.
Hence its domain is not the set of all real numbers.
Thus, the given statement is false.
Precalculus (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0
Chapter 4 - Polynomial and Rational Functions - 4.2 Properties of Rational Functions - 4.2 Assess Your Understanding - Page 196: 5
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