#### Answer

false

#### Work Step by Step

If $f(x)=\frac{1}{x}$, then the domain doesn't include 0 because the function is undefined when $x=0$.
Hence its domain is not the set of all real numbers.
Thus, the given statement is false.

Published by
Pearson

ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9

ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0

false

You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.

Update this answerAfter you claim an answer you’ll have **24 hours** to send in a draft. An editor
will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.