Chapter 1 - Limits and Their Properties - 1.3 Exercises - Page 69: 120

False

This statement is not true in general since there exist functions $f, g$ satisfying the hypothesis but $\lim_{x \to c}f(x)=\lim_{x \to c}g(x)$. For example, consider the functions $f(x)=-x^2$ and $g(x)=x^2$. For all $x \neq 0$ we have $x^2 >0$ and so $-x^2<0$. Thus, the statement is $\fbox{false}$.