#### Answer

False.

#### Work Step by Step

$(fg)(a)=f(a)g(a)$
We know that $(fg)(a)=0$, thus $f(a)g(a)=0$
Thus $g(a)$ can be zero and satisfy the equation, thus the statement is false.

Published by
Pearson

ISBN 10:
0-13417-894-7

ISBN 13:
978-0-13417-894-3

False.

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