Work Step by Step
$(f-g)(a)=f(a)-g(a)$ We know that $(f-g)(a)=0$, thus $f(a)-g(a)=0\\f(a)=g(a)$ Thus the statement is true.
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.Update this answer
After you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.