Answer
False
Work Step by Step
The Laplace Transform can be written as:
$L(F(t)^2)=\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} f^2(t) dt $
and, $L[f(t)]^2=[\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} (1/f(t)) dt]^2 $
Therefore, the given statement is $\bf{False}$.
Differential Equations and Linear Algebra (4th Edition)
by Goode, Stephen W.; Annin, Scott A.
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32196-467-5
ISBN 13:
978-0-32196-467-0
Chapter 10 - The Laplace Transform and Some Elementary Applications - 10.1 Definition of the Laplace Transform - True-False Review - Page 675: i
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