Answer
The given statement is true.
Work Step by Step
Each x-value corresponds to only one y-value and each y-value corresponds to only one x-value in a one to one function. Consider a one to one function f. The function of f in $(f\circ{g})(x)=x$ for every x in the domain of g and $(g\circ{f})(x)=x$ for every x in the domain of f.
Thus, every x-intercept of the graph of $y=f(x)$ is a y-intercept of the graph of $x=f^{-1}(x)$. Therefore the given statement is true.