Work Step by Step
We know that $f(g(x)) $ is a composite function. Thus, we know that the domain of the composite function will be the same as the range of $g(x)$. Thus, we see that the given statement is false.
You can help us out by revising, improving and updating this answer.Update this answer
After you claim an answer you’ll have 24 hours to send in a draft. An editor will review the submission and either publish your submission or provide feedback.