Answer
False.
Work Step by Step
The domain of $(f \circ g)(x)$ is the set of all $x$ such that $x$ is in the domain of $g$ and $g(x)$ is in the domain of $f$.
Therefore, the given statement is false.
Precalculus: Concepts Through Functions, A Unit Circle Approach to Trigonometry (3rd Edition)
by Sullivan III, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32193-104-1
ISBN 13:
978-0-32193-104-7
Chapter 4 - Exponential and Logarithmic Functions - Section 4.1 Composite Functions - 4.1 Assess Your Understanding - Page 279: 6
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