Answer
False.
Work Step by Step
It is false, because the solution set is $(-\infty,0]\cup(3,\infty)$ because the function is undefined at $x=3$ since the denominator is $0$ there.
Precalculus (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0
Chapter 4 - Polynomial and Rational Functions - 4.4 Polynomial and Rational Inequalities - 4.4 Assess Your Understanding - Page 218: 4
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