Answer
false
Work Step by Step
We know that $n!=n\cdot(n-1)\cdot...\cdot2\cdot1.$
Hence,
$(n+1)n!=(n+1)!\\n!=\frac{(n+1)!}{n+1}$
Thus, the given statement is false.
Precalculus (10th Edition)
by Sullivan, Michael
Published by
Pearson
ISBN 10:
0-32197-907-9
ISBN 13:
978-0-32197-907-0
Chapter 13 - Counting and Probability - 13.2 Permutations and Combinations - 13.2 Asses Your Understanding - Page 854: 2
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